120 Questions That Could Save Your Life
Introduction
1. What elected group's laws and regulations make laboratory safety a legal requirement in the United States of America?
a) state
b) federal
c) local
d) county
e) all of the above OSHA
2. Which of the following describes some key elements of an appropriate safety training program?
a) safety training should be an integral part of the daily activities of laboratory workers
b) safety training must be a continuing process
c) formal safety education should be made as relevant as possible to actual work activities
d) informal safety training through collegial interactions are valuable ways to exchange safety information, and sustain an atmosphere in which colleagues reinforce each other's good work habits
e) all of the above OSHA
3. To reduce the probability of accidents:
a) use personal protective equipment
b) use the smallest quantity of material necessary
c) when possible, substitute a less hazardous chemical for a more hazardous one
d) practice the habit of accident prevention
e) anticipate the possible consequences of the work you do
f) all of the above ACS
4. Examples of personal protective equipment do NOT include:
a) long-sleeve shirts
b) goggles and long pants
c) lab coats
d) contact lenses
e) all of the above ACS
5. An accident-prevention program must include:
a) regular monitoring
b) formal and regular procedures
c) procedures that ensure proper disposal of waste chemicals
d) regular safety inspections
e) all of the above ACS
6. Regular inspection of safety equipment such as eye washes and safety showers must be carried out
a) once a month
b) four times a year
c) every week
d) yearly ACS
7. Pollution prevention is an integral component of waste management practices. Which of the following is not included in the hierarchy of pollution prevention techniques?
a) recycling/reuse/recovery
b) storing less material on-site
c) treatment
d) land disposal
e) source reduction
f) all of the above OSHA
Section 1. Your Responsibilities
8. Safety in the instructional laboratory is
a) the responsibility of the student only
b) the responsibility of the professor only
c) a shared responsibility ACS
9. Who is required to wear eye protection in the laboratory?
a) students but not professors
b) everyone, but only when performing a chemical operation
c) all visitors, unless they are present for less than one minute
d) everyone ACS
10. Accidents often result from:
a) an indifferent attitude
b) failure to use common sense
c) failure to follow instructions
d) making mistakes
e) all of the above ACS
11. General guidelines for preventing accidents include:
a) follow all safety instructions carefully
b) know where the safety equipment is
c) become familiar with the hazards of the chemicals to be used
d) become familiar with the hazards of equipment to be used
e) never play tricks or indulge in horseplay in the chemical laboratory
f) all of the above ACS
12. True or false: Safety regulations require that contact lenses NOT be worn in the laboratory
a) true
b) false ACS
13. When must special "blast shields" be utilized?
a) when any material is heated to above 350 oC
b) whenever students are enthusiastic
c) when working under reduced pressure
d) all of the above ACS
14. Clothing worn in the laboratory should:
a) offer protection from spashes and spills
b) be at least fire-resistant
c) be easily removable in case of accident
d) all of the above ACS
15. Jewelry is a potential safety issue because:
a) chemicals can be trapped under it, in contact with sensitive skin
b) it could be stolen
c) it can be damaged by chemical fumes and spills ACS
16. Which of the following types of shoes are recommended by the Americal Chemical Society for general laboratory work?
a) sandals
b) cloth-topped "tennis" or "running" shoes
c) woven leather shoes
d) high heels
e) steel-toed shoes
f) none of the above ACS
17. When using gloves as personal protective equipment, which of the following procedures should be followed?
a) wear gloves of a material known to be resistant to permeation by the substances in use
b) inspect gloves for small holes or tears before use
c) remove gloves before handling objects such as doorknobs, telephones, pens, and computer keyboards
d) replace gloves periodically, depending on the frequency of use
e) decontaminate or wash gloves before removing them
f) all of the above OSHA
18. Latex gloves
a) may be reused only if they have not been permeated
b) may be reused as long as they are clean
c) should never be reused ACS
19. Cloth or leather gloves are appropriate
a) when working with hazardous chemicals
b) when working around steam
c) never in the laboratory ACS
20. Four fundamental principles underlie all of the work practices in the chemical laboratory. Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a) minimize chemical exposure
b) do not underestimate risks
c) plan ahead
d) be prepared for accidents
e) add ventilation to the lab by opening windows OSHA
21. Glass tubing should be removed from rubber stoppers
a) only using extreme caution
b) only when it is broken
c) with the help of soap and water
d) never ACS
22. Cleaning glassware can be a safety issue
a) when using soap and water
b) when broken glassware is present
c) when using strong oxidants
d) always ACS
23. Compound A has a boiling point of 200 oC, while compound B has a boiling point of 100 oC. Which is more of a safety concern?
a) A, because it might burn faster
b) B because it has a higher vapor pressure
c) just knowing the boiling point is not enough to decide the answer to this question ACS
24. Who's responsibility is it to be aware of chemical hazards?
a) only the professor
b) the student, but only after being informed by a professor
c) anyone involved in work in a laboratory ACS
25. What is distillation?
a) Distillation is when material is heated to melting and then separated.
b) Distillation is when a liquid is evaporated and then recondensed in another container.
c) Distillation is when a substance is dissolved, heated, and then precipitated. ACS
26. What is the singular most potentially dangerous aspect of distillation?
a) the reduced pressure required for the procedure
b) the use of flammable materials in the presence of heat
c) the exothermic nature of the reaction ACS
27. What is extraction as practiced in the organic chemistry laboratory?
a) the removal of painful or impacted teeth
b) the separation of one substance from another based on solubility
c) the removal of one solid material from another ACS
28. Why does extraction pose a potential safety problem?
a) the equipment becomes pressurized and often explodes
b) hazardous organic solvents are always necessary
c) the equipment becomes pressurized and may suddenly pop open if not handled properly, spraying hazardous chemicals into the air ACS
29. The primary danger of refrigerators in the laboratory is
a) most refrigerators in use in undergraduate laboratories are not explosion-proof
b) they are insecure
c) electricity may fail, leading to warming and loss of containment of hazardous materials ACS
30. Material to be disposed of in the laboratory
a) must always be diluted copiously with water first
b) must always be handled in accordance with safety guidelines specific to that class of compound
c) must always be neutralized first ACS
31. Chemical reactions
a) must never be left unattended
b) may be left unattended overnight provided information is posted in plain sight indicating what the reaction involves and who to contact (including phone numbers) in case of emergency
c) may be left unattended overnight as long as secondary containment is present ACS
Section 2. Chemical Hazards
32. Major factors in toxicity include
a) the route of exposure
b) dose
c) personal factors such as age and gender
d) all of the above ACS
33. The four routes by which toxic chemicals can enter the body include:
a) inhalation, indigestion, transmission of bodily fluids, and interjection
b) inhalation, constipation, instigation, and investigation
c) inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection ACS
34. Acute poisoning
a) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years
b) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance
c) always has a sudden effect
d) is usually fatal ACS
35. Chronic poisoning
a) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years
b) always has a sudden effect
c) is usually fatal
d) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance ACS
36. Synergy is
a) the effect of one substance making another less toxic
b) the result of allergens in the environment
c) the effect of two substances in combination being more toxic than the effect predicted based on the sum of the individual components ACS
37. Some toxic chemicals
a) can be assimilated directly through the skin unless proper protection is taken
b) can be ingested by transferance from hand to mouth after leaving the laboratory
c) can be inhaled even if the substance has a very high boiling point
d) all of the above ACS
38. Allergic reactions
a) always require a second exposure
b) do not always involve the immune system
c) are examples of synergism ACS
39. What does MSDS stand for?
a) Material Safety and Data Sheets
b) Material Safety and Density Sheets
c) Material Security and Data Sheets
d) Maternal Safety and Dada Sheets ACS
40. Where can information regarding specific chemical safety be found?
a) OSHA Laboratory Standards
b) MERTKA
c) MSDSs ACS
41. MSDSs
a) are written by manufacturers and government agencies
b) are written by government agencies only
c) are written in a defined format by contractors for OSHA ACS
42. OSHA stands for
a) the Occupational Safety and Hazard Agency
b) the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c) Only Some Hazards are Actual ACS
43. OSHA is
a) a federal agency
b) a state organization
c) a private company contracted by the US government ACS
44. The CAS registry number is
a) a unique identifying number for each chemical
b) a rating of flammability
c) a rating of toxicity ACS
45. An LD50 of 20 in mice indicates that
a) 50% of a test population of 100-g mice would be expected to die within a certain time period if exposed to 2 mg
b) 50% of a test population of 100-kg mice would be expected to die within a certain time period if exposed to 20 ppm of the vapor
c) 50% of a test population of 100-kg mice would be expected to die within a certain time period if exposed to 20 g ACS
46. PEL stands for
a) personal exposure limit
b) permissible exposure limit
c) permissible exposure time length ACS
47. A PEL of 10 ppm indicates that
a) 10 parts per million of this substance in the air is enough to kill you
b) 10 parts per million of this substance in the water is safe for the average adult
c) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an adult worker for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a year is 10 ppm
d) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an average healthy adult worker for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a working lifetime is 10 ppm ACS
48. STEL refers to
a) the safe telecommuting exposure limit
b) the maximum allowable exposure on a short term basis after which the PEL or TLV is considered violated
c) the standard task exposure limit ACS
49. TWA, as regards to safety, stands for
a) Time-Weighted Average
b) Total Workplace Assessment
c) Trans World Airlines ACS
50. TLV refers to
a) Tender Loving Volatiles
b) Threshold Limit Value
c) Total Loss of Volition ACS
51. The label DANGER on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical ACS
52. The label WARNING on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical ACS
53. The label CAUTION on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical ACS
54. Labels on bottles containing hazardous chemicals must indicate
a) the name of the chemical
b) one of the signal words, Danger, Warning, or Caution
c) the principal foreseeable hazard when used in an industrial workplace
d) first aid instructions
e) the precautionary measures that will protect users
f) all of the above ACS
55. The label CORROSIVE on a chemical container indicates
a) that the material can degrade rapidly upon exposure to air
b) that the material is an oxidant
c) that contact destroys living tissue as well as equipment ACS
56. FLAMMABLE means
a) the opposite of "inflammable"
b) easily ignited and capable of burning rapidly
c) capable of autoignition at or only slightly above room temperature. ACS
57. "Fatal if swallowed" indicates
a) that the substance will cause death if a sufficient amount is ingested
b) that the substance will cause death if ingested
c) that 50% of a population of test animals that ingested this substance died ACS
58. teratogens
a) are substances that only pregnant women should be particularly concerned about
b) are substances that cause birth defects or fetal death
c) are naturally occurring pyrophoric poisons ACS
59. Examples of oxidizing agents include
a) KNO3, KMnO4, and Na2CrO4
b) H2, C, gasoline, acetic acid
c) NaCN, phenol ACS
60. Examples of reducing agents include
a) H2, C, gasoline, acetic acid
b) NaCN, phenol
c) KNO3, KMnO4, and Na2CrO4 ACS
61. Examples of corrosive chemicals include
a) metallic sodium, NaH, PH3, H2C2
b) NaCN, phenol
c) HCl, H3PO4, KOH, Cl2 ACS
62. Examples of water-reactive chemicals include
a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) ethanol, n-hexane
c) metallic sodium, NaH, PH3, H2C2 ACS
63. Examples of air-reactive include
a) metallic potassium, metallic sodium
b) NaCN, phenol
c) ethanol, n-hexane ACS
64. Examples of highly toxic chemicals include
a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) ethanol, n-hexane
c) NaCN, phenol ACS
65. Examples of less toxic chemicals include
a) ethanol, n-hexane
b) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
c) NaCN, phenol ACS
66. Examples of self-reactive chemicals include
a) metallic potassium, metallic sodium
b) NaCN, phenol
c) picric acid, trinitrotoluene,CH3N2 ACS
67. Examples of incompatible chemicals include
a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) NaCN, phenol
c) picric acid, trinitrotoluene,CH3N2 ACS
68. Organic solvents are potential hazards because
a) most organic solvents are volatile and flammable
b) most organic liquids burn
c) most organic solvents absorb directly through the skin
d) all of the above ACS
69. Solvents such as THF and ethyl ether are particularly hazardous because
a) they form explosive peroxides when exposed to air
b) they penetrate the skin
c) they are flammable
d) all of the above ACS
70. Exposure to dilute aqueous hydrofluoric acid is indicated by
a) rapid reddening of the affected area
b) no immediate pain, but then, after several hours, excruciating pain
c) an immediate burning sensation ACS
71. When diluting an acid with water,
a) do it quickly, so that a cool fountain of toxic material is ejected from the flask
b) do not stir the flask, because it might break
c) always add acid to water, not water to acid, so that the heat of reaction can be controlled ACS
72. Phosphoric acid
a) should never be tasted
b) though a component of soft drinks, reacts vigorously with water when in concentrated form
c) is a weak acid, so it is not toxic ACS
73. Nitric acid
a) is a strong oxidizing agent
b) is a reducing agent
c) causes skin irritation only in concentrated form ACS
74. Perchloric acid
a) can react explosively with organic compounds
b) should not be used by undergraduates unless they are closely supervised
c) is a very powerful oxidizing agent
d) all of the above ACS
75. Spilled mercury
a) is an acute poison
b) is dangerous in liquid form, because it absorbs directly through the skin
c) is dangerous because its vapor can be inhaled, and it is a cumulative poison ACS
76. True or false: Formaldehyde is an allergen as well as a suspected carcinogen
a) true
b) false ACS
77. Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous
a) when concentrated
b) when heated
c) when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air and allowed to evaporate
d) all of the above ACS
78. Examples of compounds that can form dangerous explosive peroxides include:
a) cyclohexene
b) cyclooctene
c) para-dioxane
d) decalin
e) isopropyl ether
f) ethyl ether
g) tetralin
h) tetrahydrofuran
i) all of the above ACS
79. Cryogenic liquids are materials with boiling points of less than −73 oC (−100 oF). Liquid nitrogen, helium, and argon, and slush mixtures of dry ice with isopropanol are the materials most commonly used in cold traps to condense volatile vapors from a system. In addition, oxygen, hydrogen, and helium are often used in the liquid state. The primary hazards of cryogenic liquids include:
a) pressure buildup
b) fire or explosion
c) embrittlement of structural materials
d) asphyxiation
e) frostbite
f) all of the above OSHA
Section 3. Recommended Laboratory Techniques
80. There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the laboratory. In addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger emergency response personnel. Which of the following housekeeping rules should not be adhered to?
a) clean work areas, including floors, regularly
b) never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment
c) properly label and store all chemicals
d) store chemical containers on the floor
e) secure all compressed gas cylinders to walls or benches OSHA
81. "Secondary Containment" refers to
a) holding high school students beyond the fourth year
b) keeping undergraduates away from donuts at seminars
c) an additional pan or some sort of equipment that will catch and contain a spill if the primary vessel containing a hazardous material accidentally breaks ACS
82. What quantity of liquid chemical describes the general transition between maximum amounts to keep at workbenches and amounts to be stored?
a) 250 mL
b) 500 mL
c) 1.5 L
d) 2.0 L
e) 1.0 L OSHA
83. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and laboratories should be in break-resistant secondary containers. Secondary containers with carrying handle(s) are commercially available in a variety of sizes. These containers may be made from which of the following?
a) rubber
b) plastic
c) metal
d) any of the above OSHA
84. All containers or laboratory glassware having chemicals in them should be properly labeled. When should you place a label on a container?
a) during use of the chemical in the container
b) after adding a chemical to the container
c) prior to adding a chemical to the container
d) after the container has been emptied OSHA
85. When Professor Hanson had to use his home kitchen fire extinguisher when sautéing onions, it was because
a) he thought it would be a good way to test the extinguisher
b) he was smoking too close to the oil
c) he failed to recognize the importance of the term "flash point" ACS
86. Laboratory hoods are NOT to be relied upon for protection from
a) explosion
b) implosion
c) reducing exposure to harmful vapors ACS
87. A simple Kimwipe taped to the bottom of a hood sash so that it can blow in the wind
a) though inexpensive, is a much more sensive measure of airflow than most electronic airflow indicators
b) cannot be relied upon as an indicator of airflow
c) is a reasonably good way to tell if the hood is working properly ACS
88. The failure of a belt-driven roof-mounted hood motor is indicated by
a) loss of airflow into the hood
b) the sounding of the hood alarm
c) reverse flow of air out of the hood
d) inordinate silence
e) a disturbing noise from above
f) any of the above ACS
89. On hoods where sashes open vertically, work with the hood sash in the _____ position.
a) highest possible
b) most comfortable viewing
c) lowest possible
d) mid-point OSHA
90. The proper person to notify in the case of a malfunctioning hood is
a) the stockroom manager
b) the laboratory supervisor
c) facilities personnel
d) laboratory coworkers
e) all of the above ACS
91. Flammable liquids burn only when their vapor is mixed with air in the appropriate concentration. When handling flammable liquids you should
a) minimize the creation of flammable vapors
b) keep containers closed except during transfer of contents
c) use adequately ventilated work areas
d) ground metal lines and vessels to avoid static-generated sparks
e) avoid nearby sources of ignition
f) all of the above OSHA
92. Hazardous electrical voltages may be as low as
a) 25 V AC
b) 5V DC
c) 25 V DC
d) 10 V AC ACS
93. Centrifuges are particularly unsafe if
a) not balanced
b) a clinking sound is heard
c) opened prior to coasting to a full stop
d) starting to walk off the table
e) all of the above ACS
94. High pressure air
a) is good for cleaning glassware
b) is good for evaporating organic compounds to dryness
c) can penetrate the skin without making any visible opening, causing it to balloon (ewwww!) ACS
95. Ultraviolet light should be considered dangerous if
a) it has a wavelength longer than 250 nm
b) it has a wavelength shorter than 250 nm
c) it is seen to have a greenish glow
d) it has a wavelength longer than 400 nm ACS
96. When heating a reaction,
a) the equipment should be assembled in such a way that heat can be removed rapidly and easily at any time
b) flames should be avoided
c) always be careful not to exceed the smoking temperature of the oil if an oil bath is used
d) all of the above ACS
97. The best liquid for use in a dry-ice bath is
a) isopropyl alcohol
b) ethyl ether
c) acetone ACS
98. When working at reduced pressure,
a) always be aware of the danger of implosion
b) place a cold trap between the apparatus and the vacuum pump
c) be alert to bumping (sudden boiling)
d) surround the apparatus with shielding
e) all of the above ACS
Section 4. Safety Equipment and Emergency Procedures
99. Before you help another person in an emergency,
a) evaluate the potential danger to yourself
b) act first, think later
c) reread the safety policies for the laboratory ACS
100. When an emergency occurs:
a) when calling 9911, stay on the line and follow the dispatcher's instructions. Be prepared to tell them your location, phone number, where you will meet emergency crews, general medical status of any hurt or trapped individuals, whether an explosion has occurred, and whether there is a chemical or electrical fire
b) tell others in the vacinity about the nature of the emergency
c) do not move any injured individuals unless they are in immediate danger
d) meet the ambulane or fire crew at the place indicated
e) report the nature of the emergency to yoru instructor and, if necessary, to the appropriate fire or medical facility
f) stay off the phone once you hang up so that it is free for emergency crews to call you
g) all of the above ACS
101. The best way to fight a fire
a) is to prevent it in the first place
b) is with a fire blanket ACS
102. A small fire
a) often can be extinguished by suffocating it
b) can quickly grow to become a larger fire
c) can generally be dowsed with a wet towel to put it out
d) all of the above ACS
103. The fire alarm should be pulled and the fire department should be called
a) if in your estimation it is important to do so
b) whenever there is a fire of any size whatsoever
c) only when a fire is out of control ACS
104. The NFPA provides and advocates for scientifically-based consensus codes and standards, research, training and education related to fire protection. NFPA 45 is the standard on fire protection for laboratories using chemicals. NFPA stands for what?
a) National Fire Protection Association
b) National Fire Protection Agency
c) National Fire and Programming Agency
d) National Fire Procedures Advocates NFPA
105. All chemical laboratories be equipped with fire extinguishers. Which one of the four types of extinguishers most commonly used should not be found in a chemical laboratory?
a) Water
b) Dry Chemical
c) Carbon Dioxide
d) Met-L-X NFPA
106. A "Class-A" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
b) electrical equipment
c) flammable or combustible liquids
d) combustible metals NFPA
107. A "Class-B" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids
b) electrical equipment
c) combustible metals
d) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.) NFPA
108. A "Class-C" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
b) flammable or combustible liquids
c) electrical equipment
d) combustible metals NFPA
109. A "Class-D" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
b) electrical equipment
c) combustible metals
d) flammable or combustible liquids NFPA
110. Fire extinguishers have numerical and ABC ratings on them that look something like "1-A:10-B:C". If an extinguisher has a "6-A:80-B:C" rating, it can put out ____ fire as a "3-A:40-B:C" extinguisher.
a) twice as much
b) half as much
c) three times more
d) an equal amount of NFPA
111. When operating a fire extinguisher, remember the mnemonic PASS. PASS represents the steps used to properly operate the extinguisher and it stands for which of the following?
a) Pin, Aim, See, Swing
b) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
c) Plan, Access, Squeeze, Swing
d) Pull, Access, Seize, Sweep NFPA
112. True or false: A fire blanket is only useful prior to the fire being extinguished.
a) true
b) false ACS
113. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and laboratories should be in break-resistant secondary containers. Secondary containers with carrying handle(s) are commercially available in a variety of sizes. These containers may be made from which of the following?
a) rubber
b) metal
c) plastic
d) any of the above OSHA
114. For small liquid spills that only affect a small area of skin, immediate flush with flowing water for at least
a) 5 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 15 minutes ACS
115. True or false: Solid chemicals that are spilled on the skin can usually be brushed off with no adverse consequences.
a) true
b) false ACS
116. Larger spills of a hazardous liquid on the skin
a) require immediate use of the safety shower
b) should be dealt with by taking off all the affected clothes immediately, then running to the nearest shower
c) can usually be wiped off without serious problem ACS
117. True or false: Kitty litter is often effective for cleaning up spilled liquids.
a) true (hey, it works for kitty!)
b) false (who are you trying to kit?) ACS
118. A large cloud of "smoke" and a WHOOSHing noise in the NMR room indicates
a) it's time to get a new NMR
b) the NMR is on fire
c) it's time to hit the emergency ventilation button and leave the room immediately. Find the nearest professor and tell them, "Better tell Bob that the NMR has quenched."
d) your sample is burning AMMRL
119. The culture of laboratory safety depends ultimately on the working habits of individual chemists and their sense of teamwork for the protection of what group?
a) individual chemists
b) neighbors
c) wider community
d) the environment
e) co-workers
f) all of the above OSHA
120. True or false: Finishing this quiz means I don't have to read the American Chemical Society pamphlet Safety in Academic Chemistry Laboratories.
a) true
b) false (not so fast--now it's time to REREAD the sections you haven't mastered!) BH
(preliminary version 3/18/05 feeback: Bob Hanson)
Introduction
1. What elected group's laws and regulations make laboratory safety a legal requirement in the United States of America?
a) state
b) federal
c) local
d) county
e) all of the above OSHA
2. Which of the following describes some key elements of an appropriate safety training program?
a) safety training should be an integral part of the daily activities of laboratory workers
b) safety training must be a continuing process
c) formal safety education should be made as relevant as possible to actual work activities
d) informal safety training through collegial interactions are valuable ways to exchange safety information, and sustain an atmosphere in which colleagues reinforce each other's good work habits
e) all of the above OSHA
3. To reduce the probability of accidents:
a) use personal protective equipment
b) use the smallest quantity of material necessary
c) when possible, substitute a less hazardous chemical for a more hazardous one
d) practice the habit of accident prevention
e) anticipate the possible consequences of the work you do
f) all of the above ACS
4. Examples of personal protective equipment do NOT include:
a) long-sleeve shirts
b) goggles and long pants
c) lab coats
d) contact lenses
e) all of the above ACS
5. An accident-prevention program must include:
a) regular monitoring
b) formal and regular procedures
c) procedures that ensure proper disposal of waste chemicals
d) regular safety inspections
e) all of the above ACS
6. Regular inspection of safety equipment such as eye washes and safety showers must be carried out
a) once a month
b) four times a year
c) every week
d) yearly ACS
7. Pollution prevention is an integral component of waste management practices. Which of the following is not included in the hierarchy of pollution prevention techniques?
a) recycling/reuse/recovery
b) storing less material on-site
c) treatment
d) land disposal
e) source reduction
f) all of the above OSHA
Section 1. Your Responsibilities
8. Safety in the instructional laboratory is
a) the responsibility of the student only
b) the responsibility of the professor only
c) a shared responsibility ACS
9. Who is required to wear eye protection in the laboratory?
a) students but not professors
b) everyone, but only when performing a chemical operation
c) all visitors, unless they are present for less than one minute
d) everyone ACS
10. Accidents often result from:
a) an indifferent attitude
b) failure to use common sense
c) failure to follow instructions
d) making mistakes
e) all of the above ACS
11. General guidelines for preventing accidents include:
a) follow all safety instructions carefully
b) know where the safety equipment is
c) become familiar with the hazards of the chemicals to be used
d) become familiar with the hazards of equipment to be used
e) never play tricks or indulge in horseplay in the chemical laboratory
f) all of the above ACS
12. True or false: Safety regulations require that contact lenses NOT be worn in the laboratory
a) true
b) false ACS
13. When must special "blast shields" be utilized?
a) when any material is heated to above 350 oC
b) whenever students are enthusiastic
c) when working under reduced pressure
d) all of the above ACS
14. Clothing worn in the laboratory should:
a) offer protection from spashes and spills
b) be at least fire-resistant
c) be easily removable in case of accident
d) all of the above ACS
15. Jewelry is a potential safety issue because:
a) chemicals can be trapped under it, in contact with sensitive skin
b) it could be stolen
c) it can be damaged by chemical fumes and spills ACS
16. Which of the following types of shoes are recommended by the Americal Chemical Society for general laboratory work?
a) sandals
b) cloth-topped "tennis" or "running" shoes
c) woven leather shoes
d) high heels
e) steel-toed shoes
f) none of the above ACS
17. When using gloves as personal protective equipment, which of the following procedures should be followed?
a) wear gloves of a material known to be resistant to permeation by the substances in use
b) inspect gloves for small holes or tears before use
c) remove gloves before handling objects such as doorknobs, telephones, pens, and computer keyboards
d) replace gloves periodically, depending on the frequency of use
e) decontaminate or wash gloves before removing them
f) all of the above OSHA
18. Latex gloves
a) may be reused only if they have not been permeated
b) may be reused as long as they are clean
c) should never be reused ACS
19. Cloth or leather gloves are appropriate
a) when working with hazardous chemicals
b) when working around steam
c) never in the laboratory ACS
20. Four fundamental principles underlie all of the work practices in the chemical laboratory. Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a) minimize chemical exposure
b) do not underestimate risks
c) plan ahead
d) be prepared for accidents
e) add ventilation to the lab by opening windows OSHA
21. Glass tubing should be removed from rubber stoppers
a) only using extreme caution
b) only when it is broken
c) with the help of soap and water
d) never ACS
22. Cleaning glassware can be a safety issue
a) when using soap and water
b) when broken glassware is present
c) when using strong oxidants
d) always ACS
23. Compound A has a boiling point of 200 oC, while compound B has a boiling point of 100 oC. Which is more of a safety concern?
a) A, because it might burn faster
b) B because it has a higher vapor pressure
c) just knowing the boiling point is not enough to decide the answer to this question ACS
24. Who's responsibility is it to be aware of chemical hazards?
a) only the professor
b) the student, but only after being informed by a professor
c) anyone involved in work in a laboratory ACS
25. What is distillation?
a) Distillation is when material is heated to melting and then separated.
b) Distillation is when a liquid is evaporated and then recondensed in another container.
c) Distillation is when a substance is dissolved, heated, and then precipitated. ACS
26. What is the singular most potentially dangerous aspect of distillation?
a) the reduced pressure required for the procedure
b) the use of flammable materials in the presence of heat
c) the exothermic nature of the reaction ACS
27. What is extraction as practiced in the organic chemistry laboratory?
a) the removal of painful or impacted teeth
b) the separation of one substance from another based on solubility
c) the removal of one solid material from another ACS
28. Why does extraction pose a potential safety problem?
a) the equipment becomes pressurized and often explodes
b) hazardous organic solvents are always necessary
c) the equipment becomes pressurized and may suddenly pop open if not handled properly, spraying hazardous chemicals into the air ACS
29. The primary danger of refrigerators in the laboratory is
a) most refrigerators in use in undergraduate laboratories are not explosion-proof
b) they are insecure
c) electricity may fail, leading to warming and loss of containment of hazardous materials ACS
30. Material to be disposed of in the laboratory
a) must always be diluted copiously with water first
b) must always be handled in accordance with safety guidelines specific to that class of compound
c) must always be neutralized first ACS
31. Chemical reactions
a) must never be left unattended
b) may be left unattended overnight provided information is posted in plain sight indicating what the reaction involves and who to contact (including phone numbers) in case of emergency
c) may be left unattended overnight as long as secondary containment is present ACS
Section 2. Chemical Hazards
32. Major factors in toxicity include
a) the route of exposure
b) dose
c) personal factors such as age and gender
d) all of the above ACS
33. The four routes by which toxic chemicals can enter the body include:
a) inhalation, indigestion, transmission of bodily fluids, and interjection
b) inhalation, constipation, instigation, and investigation
c) inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection ACS
34. Acute poisoning
a) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years
b) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance
c) always has a sudden effect
d) is usually fatal ACS
35. Chronic poisoning
a) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years
b) always has a sudden effect
c) is usually fatal
d) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance ACS
36. Synergy is
a) the effect of one substance making another less toxic
b) the result of allergens in the environment
c) the effect of two substances in combination being more toxic than the effect predicted based on the sum of the individual components ACS
37. Some toxic chemicals
a) can be assimilated directly through the skin unless proper protection is taken
b) can be ingested by transferance from hand to mouth after leaving the laboratory
c) can be inhaled even if the substance has a very high boiling point
d) all of the above ACS
38. Allergic reactions
a) always require a second exposure
b) do not always involve the immune system
c) are examples of synergism ACS
39. What does MSDS stand for?
a) Material Safety and Data Sheets
b) Material Safety and Density Sheets
c) Material Security and Data Sheets
d) Maternal Safety and Dada Sheets ACS
40. Where can information regarding specific chemical safety be found?
a) OSHA Laboratory Standards
b) MERTKA
c) MSDSs ACS
41. MSDSs
a) are written by manufacturers and government agencies
b) are written by government agencies only
c) are written in a defined format by contractors for OSHA ACS
42. OSHA stands for
a) the Occupational Safety and Hazard Agency
b) the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c) Only Some Hazards are Actual ACS
43. OSHA is
a) a federal agency
b) a state organization
c) a private company contracted by the US government ACS
44. The CAS registry number is
a) a unique identifying number for each chemical
b) a rating of flammability
c) a rating of toxicity ACS
45. An LD50 of 20 in mice indicates that
a) 50% of a test population of 100-g mice would be expected to die within a certain time period if exposed to 2 mg
b) 50% of a test population of 100-kg mice would be expected to die within a certain time period if exposed to 20 ppm of the vapor
c) 50% of a test population of 100-kg mice would be expected to die within a certain time period if exposed to 20 g ACS
46. PEL stands for
a) personal exposure limit
b) permissible exposure limit
c) permissible exposure time length ACS
47. A PEL of 10 ppm indicates that
a) 10 parts per million of this substance in the air is enough to kill you
b) 10 parts per million of this substance in the water is safe for the average adult
c) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an adult worker for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a year is 10 ppm
d) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an average healthy adult worker for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a working lifetime is 10 ppm ACS
48. STEL refers to
a) the safe telecommuting exposure limit
b) the maximum allowable exposure on a short term basis after which the PEL or TLV is considered violated
c) the standard task exposure limit ACS
49. TWA, as regards to safety, stands for
a) Time-Weighted Average
b) Total Workplace Assessment
c) Trans World Airlines ACS
50. TLV refers to
a) Tender Loving Volatiles
b) Threshold Limit Value
c) Total Loss of Volition ACS
51. The label DANGER on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical ACS
52. The label WARNING on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical ACS
53. The label CAUTION on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical ACS
54. Labels on bottles containing hazardous chemicals must indicate
a) the name of the chemical
b) one of the signal words, Danger, Warning, or Caution
c) the principal foreseeable hazard when used in an industrial workplace
d) first aid instructions
e) the precautionary measures that will protect users
f) all of the above ACS
55. The label CORROSIVE on a chemical container indicates
a) that the material can degrade rapidly upon exposure to air
b) that the material is an oxidant
c) that contact destroys living tissue as well as equipment ACS
56. FLAMMABLE means
a) the opposite of "inflammable"
b) easily ignited and capable of burning rapidly
c) capable of autoignition at or only slightly above room temperature. ACS
57. "Fatal if swallowed" indicates
a) that the substance will cause death if a sufficient amount is ingested
b) that the substance will cause death if ingested
c) that 50% of a population of test animals that ingested this substance died ACS
58. teratogens
a) are substances that only pregnant women should be particularly concerned about
b) are substances that cause birth defects or fetal death
c) are naturally occurring pyrophoric poisons ACS
59. Examples of oxidizing agents include
a) KNO3, KMnO4, and Na2CrO4
b) H2, C, gasoline, acetic acid
c) NaCN, phenol ACS
60. Examples of reducing agents include
a) H2, C, gasoline, acetic acid
b) NaCN, phenol
c) KNO3, KMnO4, and Na2CrO4 ACS
61. Examples of corrosive chemicals include
a) metallic sodium, NaH, PH3, H2C2
b) NaCN, phenol
c) HCl, H3PO4, KOH, Cl2 ACS
62. Examples of water-reactive chemicals include
a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) ethanol, n-hexane
c) metallic sodium, NaH, PH3, H2C2 ACS
63. Examples of air-reactive include
a) metallic potassium, metallic sodium
b) NaCN, phenol
c) ethanol, n-hexane ACS
64. Examples of highly toxic chemicals include
a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) ethanol, n-hexane
c) NaCN, phenol ACS
65. Examples of less toxic chemicals include
a) ethanol, n-hexane
b) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
c) NaCN, phenol ACS
66. Examples of self-reactive chemicals include
a) metallic potassium, metallic sodium
b) NaCN, phenol
c) picric acid, trinitrotoluene,CH3N2 ACS
67. Examples of incompatible chemicals include
a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) NaCN, phenol
c) picric acid, trinitrotoluene,CH3N2 ACS
68. Organic solvents are potential hazards because
a) most organic solvents are volatile and flammable
b) most organic liquids burn
c) most organic solvents absorb directly through the skin
d) all of the above ACS
69. Solvents such as THF and ethyl ether are particularly hazardous because
a) they form explosive peroxides when exposed to air
b) they penetrate the skin
c) they are flammable
d) all of the above ACS
70. Exposure to dilute aqueous hydrofluoric acid is indicated by
a) rapid reddening of the affected area
b) no immediate pain, but then, after several hours, excruciating pain
c) an immediate burning sensation ACS
71. When diluting an acid with water,
a) do it quickly, so that a cool fountain of toxic material is ejected from the flask
b) do not stir the flask, because it might break
c) always add acid to water, not water to acid, so that the heat of reaction can be controlled ACS
72. Phosphoric acid
a) should never be tasted
b) though a component of soft drinks, reacts vigorously with water when in concentrated form
c) is a weak acid, so it is not toxic ACS
73. Nitric acid
a) is a strong oxidizing agent
b) is a reducing agent
c) causes skin irritation only in concentrated form ACS
74. Perchloric acid
a) can react explosively with organic compounds
b) should not be used by undergraduates unless they are closely supervised
c) is a very powerful oxidizing agent
d) all of the above ACS
75. Spilled mercury
a) is an acute poison
b) is dangerous in liquid form, because it absorbs directly through the skin
c) is dangerous because its vapor can be inhaled, and it is a cumulative poison ACS
76. True or false: Formaldehyde is an allergen as well as a suspected carcinogen
a) true
b) false ACS
77. Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous
a) when concentrated
b) when heated
c) when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air and allowed to evaporate
d) all of the above ACS
78. Examples of compounds that can form dangerous explosive peroxides include:
a) cyclohexene
b) cyclooctene
c) para-dioxane
d) decalin
e) isopropyl ether
f) ethyl ether
g) tetralin
h) tetrahydrofuran
i) all of the above ACS
79. Cryogenic liquids are materials with boiling points of less than −73 oC (−100 oF). Liquid nitrogen, helium, and argon, and slush mixtures of dry ice with isopropanol are the materials most commonly used in cold traps to condense volatile vapors from a system. In addition, oxygen, hydrogen, and helium are often used in the liquid state. The primary hazards of cryogenic liquids include:
a) pressure buildup
b) fire or explosion
c) embrittlement of structural materials
d) asphyxiation
e) frostbite
f) all of the above OSHA
Section 3. Recommended Laboratory Techniques
80. There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the laboratory. In addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger emergency response personnel. Which of the following housekeeping rules should not be adhered to?
a) clean work areas, including floors, regularly
b) never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment
c) properly label and store all chemicals
d) store chemical containers on the floor
e) secure all compressed gas cylinders to walls or benches OSHA
81. "Secondary Containment" refers to
a) holding high school students beyond the fourth year
b) keeping undergraduates away from donuts at seminars
c) an additional pan or some sort of equipment that will catch and contain a spill if the primary vessel containing a hazardous material accidentally breaks ACS
82. What quantity of liquid chemical describes the general transition between maximum amounts to keep at workbenches and amounts to be stored?
a) 250 mL
b) 500 mL
c) 1.5 L
d) 2.0 L
e) 1.0 L OSHA
83. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and laboratories should be in break-resistant secondary containers. Secondary containers with carrying handle(s) are commercially available in a variety of sizes. These containers may be made from which of the following?
a) rubber
b) plastic
c) metal
d) any of the above OSHA
84. All containers or laboratory glassware having chemicals in them should be properly labeled. When should you place a label on a container?
a) during use of the chemical in the container
b) after adding a chemical to the container
c) prior to adding a chemical to the container
d) after the container has been emptied OSHA
85. When Professor Hanson had to use his home kitchen fire extinguisher when sautéing onions, it was because
a) he thought it would be a good way to test the extinguisher
b) he was smoking too close to the oil
c) he failed to recognize the importance of the term "flash point" ACS
86. Laboratory hoods are NOT to be relied upon for protection from
a) explosion
b) implosion
c) reducing exposure to harmful vapors ACS
87. A simple Kimwipe taped to the bottom of a hood sash so that it can blow in the wind
a) though inexpensive, is a much more sensive measure of airflow than most electronic airflow indicators
b) cannot be relied upon as an indicator of airflow
c) is a reasonably good way to tell if the hood is working properly ACS
88. The failure of a belt-driven roof-mounted hood motor is indicated by
a) loss of airflow into the hood
b) the sounding of the hood alarm
c) reverse flow of air out of the hood
d) inordinate silence
e) a disturbing noise from above
f) any of the above ACS
89. On hoods where sashes open vertically, work with the hood sash in the _____ position.
a) highest possible
b) most comfortable viewing
c) lowest possible
d) mid-point OSHA
90. The proper person to notify in the case of a malfunctioning hood is
a) the stockroom manager
b) the laboratory supervisor
c) facilities personnel
d) laboratory coworkers
e) all of the above ACS
91. Flammable liquids burn only when their vapor is mixed with air in the appropriate concentration. When handling flammable liquids you should
a) minimize the creation of flammable vapors
b) keep containers closed except during transfer of contents
c) use adequately ventilated work areas
d) ground metal lines and vessels to avoid static-generated sparks
e) avoid nearby sources of ignition
f) all of the above OSHA
92. Hazardous electrical voltages may be as low as
a) 25 V AC
b) 5V DC
c) 25 V DC
d) 10 V AC ACS
93. Centrifuges are particularly unsafe if
a) not balanced
b) a clinking sound is heard
c) opened prior to coasting to a full stop
d) starting to walk off the table
e) all of the above ACS
94. High pressure air
a) is good for cleaning glassware
b) is good for evaporating organic compounds to dryness
c) can penetrate the skin without making any visible opening, causing it to balloon (ewwww!) ACS
95. Ultraviolet light should be considered dangerous if
a) it has a wavelength longer than 250 nm
b) it has a wavelength shorter than 250 nm
c) it is seen to have a greenish glow
d) it has a wavelength longer than 400 nm ACS
96. When heating a reaction,
a) the equipment should be assembled in such a way that heat can be removed rapidly and easily at any time
b) flames should be avoided
c) always be careful not to exceed the smoking temperature of the oil if an oil bath is used
d) all of the above ACS
97. The best liquid for use in a dry-ice bath is
a) isopropyl alcohol
b) ethyl ether
c) acetone ACS
98. When working at reduced pressure,
a) always be aware of the danger of implosion
b) place a cold trap between the apparatus and the vacuum pump
c) be alert to bumping (sudden boiling)
d) surround the apparatus with shielding
e) all of the above ACS
Section 4. Safety Equipment and Emergency Procedures
99. Before you help another person in an emergency,
a) evaluate the potential danger to yourself
b) act first, think later
c) reread the safety policies for the laboratory ACS
100. When an emergency occurs:
a) when calling 9911, stay on the line and follow the dispatcher's instructions. Be prepared to tell them your location, phone number, where you will meet emergency crews, general medical status of any hurt or trapped individuals, whether an explosion has occurred, and whether there is a chemical or electrical fire
b) tell others in the vacinity about the nature of the emergency
c) do not move any injured individuals unless they are in immediate danger
d) meet the ambulane or fire crew at the place indicated
e) report the nature of the emergency to yoru instructor and, if necessary, to the appropriate fire or medical facility
f) stay off the phone once you hang up so that it is free for emergency crews to call you
g) all of the above ACS
101. The best way to fight a fire
a) is to prevent it in the first place
b) is with a fire blanket ACS
102. A small fire
a) often can be extinguished by suffocating it
b) can quickly grow to become a larger fire
c) can generally be dowsed with a wet towel to put it out
d) all of the above ACS
103. The fire alarm should be pulled and the fire department should be called
a) if in your estimation it is important to do so
b) whenever there is a fire of any size whatsoever
c) only when a fire is out of control ACS
104. The NFPA provides and advocates for scientifically-based consensus codes and standards, research, training and education related to fire protection. NFPA 45 is the standard on fire protection for laboratories using chemicals. NFPA stands for what?
a) National Fire Protection Association
b) National Fire Protection Agency
c) National Fire and Programming Agency
d) National Fire Procedures Advocates NFPA
105. All chemical laboratories be equipped with fire extinguishers. Which one of the four types of extinguishers most commonly used should not be found in a chemical laboratory?
a) Water
b) Dry Chemical
c) Carbon Dioxide
d) Met-L-X NFPA
106. A "Class-A" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
b) electrical equipment
c) flammable or combustible liquids
d) combustible metals NFPA
107. A "Class-B" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids
b) electrical equipment
c) combustible metals
d) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.) NFPA
108. A "Class-C" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
b) flammable or combustible liquids
c) electrical equipment
d) combustible metals NFPA
109. A "Class-D" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
b) electrical equipment
c) combustible metals
d) flammable or combustible liquids NFPA
110. Fire extinguishers have numerical and ABC ratings on them that look something like "1-A:10-B:C". If an extinguisher has a "6-A:80-B:C" rating, it can put out ____ fire as a "3-A:40-B:C" extinguisher.
a) twice as much
b) half as much
c) three times more
d) an equal amount of NFPA
111. When operating a fire extinguisher, remember the mnemonic PASS. PASS represents the steps used to properly operate the extinguisher and it stands for which of the following?
a) Pin, Aim, See, Swing
b) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
c) Plan, Access, Squeeze, Swing
d) Pull, Access, Seize, Sweep NFPA
112. True or false: A fire blanket is only useful prior to the fire being extinguished.
a) true
b) false ACS
113. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and laboratories should be in break-resistant secondary containers. Secondary containers with carrying handle(s) are commercially available in a variety of sizes. These containers may be made from which of the following?
a) rubber
b) metal
c) plastic
d) any of the above OSHA
114. For small liquid spills that only affect a small area of skin, immediate flush with flowing water for at least
a) 5 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 15 minutes ACS
115. True or false: Solid chemicals that are spilled on the skin can usually be brushed off with no adverse consequences.
a) true
b) false ACS
116. Larger spills of a hazardous liquid on the skin
a) require immediate use of the safety shower
b) should be dealt with by taking off all the affected clothes immediately, then running to the nearest shower
c) can usually be wiped off without serious problem ACS
117. True or false: Kitty litter is often effective for cleaning up spilled liquids.
a) true (hey, it works for kitty!)
b) false (who are you trying to kit?) ACS
118. A large cloud of "smoke" and a WHOOSHing noise in the NMR room indicates
a) it's time to get a new NMR
b) the NMR is on fire
c) it's time to hit the emergency ventilation button and leave the room immediately. Find the nearest professor and tell them, "Better tell Bob that the NMR has quenched."
d) your sample is burning AMMRL
119. The culture of laboratory safety depends ultimately on the working habits of individual chemists and their sense of teamwork for the protection of what group?
a) individual chemists
b) neighbors
c) wider community
d) the environment
e) co-workers
f) all of the above OSHA
120. True or false: Finishing this quiz means I don't have to read the American Chemical Society pamphlet Safety in Academic Chemistry Laboratories.
a) true
b) false (not so fast--now it's time to REREAD the sections you haven't mastered!) BH
(preliminary version 3/18/05 feeback: Bob Hanson)
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